WORKBOOK
Basic Communication Skills & Research Methods (GSP 101)
Q. The study of World Englishes commenced at the juncture of ___, ___ and ___
a. morphology, dialectology and sociolinguistics.
b. historical linguistics, phonology & semantics.
c. dialectology, sociolinguistics & historical linguistics.
d. sociolinguistics, historical linguistics & grammatology.
Answer: C
Q. The early study of New Englishes can be traced to ___
a. 1950s
b. 1980s
c. 1960s
d. 1970
Answer: C
Q. The dominance of the English language across the world has strengthened its significance
a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q. By international treaty, The English is globally accepted as ___ language.
a. The inclusive
b. The exclusive
c. The productive
d. The communicative
Answer: D
Q. ___ holds the position of a global language.
a. French
b. Latin
c. English
d. Cireck
Answer: C
Q. The factor responsible for the promotion of the need for a universal language is ___.
a. Globalization
b. Communication
c. Interaction
d. Discourse
Answer: A
Q. The basic need for English globally is to ___
a. Solve communication needs
b. Creative conducive environ
c. Maintain cultural differences
d. Achieve world harmony
Answer: A
Q. It is estimated that the English language is spoken in about ___ countries of the world.
a. 208
b. 100
c. 105
d. 104
Answer: A
Q. Foreign speakers of English considerably outnumber those who speak it as their mother tongue.
a. False
b. True
c. A & B
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q. According to McKay (2002), English has a ___ status in more than 70 countries of the world.
a. Unifying
b. Distinctive
c. Global
d. Communicative
Answer: C
Q. The English language has become a mandatory subject for educational transactions in Nigeria.
a. False
b. True
c. Not sure
d. None of the above
Answer: B
Q. ___ is recognized as the international lingua franca.
a. Latin
b. French
c. German
d. English
Answer: D
Q. Another term for World Englishes is ___.
a. Regional & national varieties of English
b. British varieties of English
c. America varieties of English
d. American & British varieties of English
Answer: A
Q. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. New Englishes are varieties of English which are not uniform in their characteristics.
b. New Englishes are the same thing as received pronunciation.
c. New Englishes might share some features in common.
d. Varieties of the English language are used in places where it is not the first language of the majority of the population.
Answer: B
Q. Which of the statements below is odd?
a. New Englishes as a variety fulfills certain criteria.
b. New Englishes developed through the education system.
c. New Englishes is a standard variety of English.
d. New Englishes is not the language spoken by most of the native speakers.
Answer: C
Q. New Englishes differ in terms of __, ___, and ___.
a. Accents, stress patterns & vocabulary
b. Grammar, phonology & semantics
c. Intonation, acoustics & function
d. Usage, purpose and popularity
Answer: A
Q. ___, ___, and ___ properties of World Englishes differ from those of British or American Standard English.
a. Lexical, phonological & grammatical
b. Structural, form & grammatical
c. Tense, number & gender
d. Stress, lexical & semantics
Answer: A
Q. The lexical term “fulfill” is a variety of ___ English.
a. British standard
b. American standard
c. Nigerian standard
d. South African standard
Answer: B
Q. Another term for New Englishes is ___.
a. Non-native varieties of English
b. Native varieties of English
c. Normative language varieties
d. Received pronunciation varieties
Answer: A
Q. NVEs stands for ___
a. Non-varieties of English
b. None varieties of English
c. Normal varieties of English
d. New varieties of English
Answer: D
Q. A difference in vocabulary means ___
a. When one word has a particular meaning in British English and a different meaning in American English.
b. When one word has a multiple meaning in British English and a single meaning in American English.
c. When one word has a singular meaning in British English and double meanings in American English.
d. When one word has no meanings in British English and a single meaning in American English.
Answer: A
Q. Which of the following statements is true?
a. As a result of the difference in British and American varieties of English, both varieties can understand each other.
b. The differences in the British and American varieties of English notwithstanding, both can understand each other.
c. The differences in the British and American varieties of English make varieties unintelligible.
d. The British varieties of English is superior to the American varieties of English.
Answer: B
Q. While college is for the British, ____ is for the American.
a. School
b. Institution
c. Faculty
d. University
Answer: D
Q. BrE stands for ___
a. British English
b. British Emergence
c. British Envoy
d. British Efficiency
Answer: A
Q. “Gotten” is a variety of ___ English.
a. Asian
b. Nigerian
c. British
d. American
Answer: D
Q. One of the most common differences between BrE and AmE is word ___.
a. Order
b. Stress
c. Meaning
d. Form
Answer: D
Q. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Some words of French origin which have found their way into BrE have changed their stress pattern.
b. None of the words of French origin which have found their way into BrE have changed their stress pattern.
c. Half of the words of French origin which have found their way into BrE have not changed their stress pattern.
d. Some words of French origin which have found their way into BrE have changed their origin.
Answer: A
Q. Both the French and AmE have the stress on the ___ syllable of the word.
a. Medial
b. First
c. Last
d. Second
Answer: C
Q. According to Crystal (1995) and Kachru (1992), there are ___ circles of World Englishes.
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. Six
Answer: C
Q. ____ circle is one of the circles of World Englishes.
a. Outer
b. Middle
c. Centre
d. Front
Answer: A
Q. The Inner Circle represents countries like ___ and ___.
a. UK, Ireland & USA
b. South Africa, Mexico & Ghana
c. UK, Nigeria & Sweden
d. USA, Ukraine & Britain
Answer: A
Q. Nigeria belongs to ___ Circle of English.
a. Outer
b. Inner
c. Expanding
d. Medial
Answer: A
Q. The Expanding Circle represents countries where English is not used because of historical reasons but ___.
a. As an important language for international communication
b. As a mark of pride
c. As means of economic advancement
d. A mark of identity
Answer: A
Q. The ___ Circle variety of English provides the norm or standard to the other circles.
a. Outer
b. Inner
c. Central
d. Expanding
Answer: B
Q. According to Yule (1985), which of the following is not true about Standard English?
a. It is the variety which forms the basis of print in newspapers and books.
b. It is the variety used in mass media.
c. It is the variety used in schools.
d. It is the variety normally taught to the native speakers.
Answer: D
Q. Standard English is basically an ideal, a mode of expression.
a. False
b. True
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q. One of the criteria a New English should meet is ___.
a. It should have been taught as a subject and used as a medium of education in places where neither the first language nor the mother tongue exists already.
b. The majority of the people in the area where it is developed must have received communication competence.
c. It must be a language saddled with a wide range of functions among the users where it is used.
d. It must be spoken by the upper class in a speech community.
Answer: C
Q. Bush meat, cash madam and go-slow are examples of ___ features of the Nigerian English.
a. Semantic
b. Phonological
c. Morphological
d. Lexical
Answer: D
Q. A common phonological feature manifested by Nigerian speakers of English is ___.
a. A reduced vowel system
b. Reduced consonant system
c. A multiple-syllable structure
d. Compound noun structure
Answer: A
Q. The lecturer is not on seat is a typical example of ____ syntactic structure.
a. British
b. Nigerian
c. American
d. Educated
Answer: B
Q. Any attempt made to solve human problems and answer questions on a wide range of issues is linked to ___.
a. Intelligence
b. Research
c. Science
d. Literature
Answer: B
Q. A research that is aimed at finding an answer to a question is called ___.
a. Basic research
b. Applied research
c. Evaluation research
d. Development research
Answer: B
Q. __ research is known as explanatory or expository research.
a. Basic
b. Action
c. Evaluation
d. Development
Answer: A
Q. _research involves collecting and analyzing data mostly for decision making.
a. Action
b. Basic
c. Evaluation
d. Development
Answer: C
Q. The type of research aimed at improving the quality of teaching and learning is called ___ research.
a. Applied
b. Basic
c. Evaluation
d. Development
Answer: A
Q. ___ research is carried out to solve specific problems through the application of a scientific method.
a. Action
b. Applied
c. Evaluation
d. Development
Answer: B
Q. A research done to establish facts by studying past events is referred to as ___ research.
a. Historical
b. Descriptive
c. Experimental
d. Observational
Answer: A
Q. A research aimed at observing a phenomenon or an occurrence is known as ___ research.
a. Descriptive
b. Historical
c. Observational
d. Experimental
Answer: A
Q. ___ research is an attempt to discover the relationship that exists between two or more things.
a. Experimental
b. Correlational
c. Historical
d. Descriptive
Answer: B
Q. ____ research involves the manipulation of conditions of events in order to determine the cause and effect relationship.
a. Experimental
b. Historical
c. Correlational
d. Descriptive
Answer: A
Q. Q ___ refer to pieces of information or facts one can analyze.
a. Tools.
b. Data.
c. Literature.
d. Science.
Answer: B
Q. Q ___ is the first step in a research work after a topic has been chosen.
a. Preparation of Data.
b. Collection of data.
c. Presentation of data.
d. Data analysis.
Answer: B
Q. Q ____ is done in a research work to avoid error analysis.
a. Preparation of data.
b. Data analysis.
c. Collection of data.
d. Presentation of data.
Answer: A
Q. Q _____ comes after a researcher has chosen a topic and gathered enough materials.
a. Data report.
b. Literature report.
c. Collection of data.
d. Presentation of data.
Answer: C
Q. Q ______ is captured in chapters in a research report.
a. The preliminary pages.
b. The main text.
c. The subsidiary pages.
d. The cover page.
Answer: B
Q. Q Chapter one of a research report serves as ___.
a. Literature review.
b. An introduction.
c. The methodology.
d. Data presentation and analysis.
Answer: B
Q. Q Chapter two of a research report is the ____.
a. Introduction.
b. Methodology.
c. Data Presentation & Analysis.
d. Literature review.
Answer: D
Q. Q Chapter three of a research report is the ____.
a. Methodology.
b. Literature review.
c. Discussions of findings.
d. Data presentation & analysis.
Answer: A
Q. Q _____ is defined as a means of acknowledging a researcher’s source of information in a research report.
a. Data.
b. Literature review.
c. Documentation.
d. Acknowledgement.
Answer: C
Q. Q The failure of a researcher to acknowledge their sources of information is regarded as ___.
a. Robbing.
b. Plagiarism.
c. Phenomenon.
d. Error.
Answer: B
Q. Q Paraphrasing in a research paper is also known as ____.
a. A direct quotation.
b. An indirect quotation.
c. An intelligent quotation.
d. An important quotation.
Answer: B
Q. Q A/An ____ quotation of a researcher’s sources of information in the researcher’s own words is known as ____.
a. Direct.
b. Indirect.
c. Intelligent.
d. Important.
Answer: B
Q. Q In documentation, footnotes appear at the ___ of a research report.
a. End of each chapter.
b. Bottom page.
c. Side page.
d. Beginning of each paper.
Answer: B
Q. Q In documentation, endnotes appear at the ___ of a research report.
a. Bottom page.
b. Side page.
c. End of each chapter.
d. Beginning of each chapter.
Answer: C
Q. Q In documentation, the MLA stands for the ___________.
a. Modern Linguistic Association.
b. Modern Language Association.
c. Members Language Association.
d. Modern Language Assembly.
Answer: B
Q. Q In documentation, the APA stands for the _____________.
a. American Psychological Association.
b. American Physiological Association.
c. Asian Physiological Association.
d. American Physiological Assembly.
Answer: A
Q. Q The MLA is used in ___.
a. The Sciences.
b. The Humanities.
c. Medicine.
d. Engineering.
Answer: B
Q. Q The APA is used in ___.
a. The Humanities.
b. Arts.
c. The Sciences.
d. Music.
Answer: C
Q. Q Sources of information consulted or quoted in course of research report are referred to as ___.
a. Literature review.
b. Bibliography.
c. Biography.
d. Bibliogrammer.
Answer: B
Q. Q ____ can be termed as a miniature report.
a. Research report.
b. Term paper.
c. Essay.
d. Literature review.
Answer: B
Q. Q ____ is usually required from students of the tertiary institutions as part of a requirement for a course.
a. Term paper writing.
b. Essay writing.
c. Research review.
d. Literature review.
Answer: A
Q. Q An actual term paper writing has ___ parts.
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.
Answer: B
Q. Q In a term paper, the students’ details can be found in the ___ page(s).
a. Preliminary.
b. Cover.
c. Chapter.
d. Subsidiary.
Answer: B
Q. Q ____ is not mandatory in the preliminary pages of a term paper.
a. Table of content.
b. Dedication.
c. Acknowledgement.
d. Preface.
Answer: B
Q. Q _____ page gives the reader the background information of a term paper.
a. The title.
b. Table of contents.
c. Acknowledgement.
d. Preface.
Answer: D
Q. Q The preliminary pages of a term paper are identified with ____ numerals.
a. Roman.
b. Arabic.
c. Asian.
d. English.
Answer: A
Q. Q The subsidiary pages of a term paper appear at the ___ of a research report.
a. Beginning.
b. End.
c. Middle.
d. Beginning and end.
Answer: B
Q. Q The glossary and appendix can be found at the ____ pages of a research report.
a. Preliminary.
b. Middle.
c. Cover.
d. Subsidiary.
Answer: D
Q. Q In learning processes, ____ is the major stakeholder.
a. The teacher.
b. The management.
c. The learner.
d. The government.
Answer: C
Q. Q ________ is a critical component of learning processes.
a. Presentation.
b. Examination.
c. Review.
d. Grading.
Answer: B
Q. Q One of the advantages of E-examination over pen and paper mode is that ___.
a. It is cost effective.
b. Exam mercenaries aren’t easily detected.
c. Grading could be subjective.
d. It takes a longer time for the results to be released.
Answer: A
Q. Q One of the major factors to consider for an E-exam mode is ___.
a. Good candidates.
b. Good platform.
c. Good examiners.
d. All of the above.
Answer: D
Q. Q The ‘E’ in E-exam is called ____.
a. Electronics.
b. Electronic.
c. Electrical.
d. Electric.
Answer: B
Q. Q Another word for E-exam is ___.
a. CBT.
b. Digital exam.
c. Online exam.
d. All of the above.
Answer: D
Q. Q ICT stands for ___.
a. Information Computer Technology.
b. Information Communication Technology.
c. Information Computer and Technical.
d. Information and Communication Technologies.
Answer: B
Q. Q CBT stands for ____.
a. Computer Based Test.
b. Computer Backup Test.
c. Computational Base Test.
d. Computer Base Testing.
Answer: A
Q. Q In E-exam, the ‘submit’ button connotes ___.
a. Completion of the exam.
b. Application of answer to questions.
c. A & B are correct.
d. Only B is correct.
Answer: C
Q. Q Examination in ESL learning environment is the assessment of the learner’s _____ in the use of the English language.
a. Proficiency and mastery.
b. Study skills.
c. Basic grammar.
d. Knowledge of composition.
Answer: A
Q. Q ____ defines digital humanity as the applications of computer-based technology in humanity.
a. Terzis & Economides (2011).
b. Faniran & Ajayi (2016).
c. Berry (2019).
d. Fu (2013).
Answer: C
Q. Q ____ is a digital platform for evaluation of candidates’ reception capability in relation to what they have been taught.
a. Pen & paper exam.
b. E-exam.
c. A is correct.
d. A & B are correct.
Answer: B
Q. Q According to Godwin (2018), ____ supports digital recording and assessment in E-exam platform.
a. MP3.
b. Webinar.
c. Digital camera.
d. Proctoring software.
Answer: D
Q. Q Marsh and Mclennan (2021) identify the following except one as good E-examination platforms.
a. Merittrac.
b. Mercer/Mettl.
c. Talview.
d. Webinar.
Answer: D
Q. Q Most importantly, the E-learning platform is enshrined with ___ that could detect all forms of examination malpractices.
a. Proctoring software.
b. Hardware.
c. ICT invigilator.
d. A & B are correct.
Answer: A
Q. Q The University of Nigeria graduates only students who are found worthy in ___.
a. Character & learning.
b. Learning & character.
c. Learning & discipline.
d. Character & discipline.
Answer: A
Q. Q Examination misconduct is meted with severe punishment, in UNN. Specifically ____.
a. Rustication.
b. No punishment.
c. Manual labour.
d. None of the above.
Answer: A
Q. Q ____ and ____ maintain that the integrity of any E-exam is first and foremost guaranteed by the platform through which the exam is administered.
a. Faniran & Ajayi (2016).
b. Marsh & Mclennan (2021).
c. Terzis & Economides (2011).
d. Halliday (1985).
Answer: B
Q. Q All of the features of a good e-examination platform except one.
a. Scalability.
b. Proctoring.
c. Accessibility.
d. Invigilator.
Answer: D
Q. Q ____ means that the platform should accommodate a sizeable population of students concurrently without a glitch.
a. Proctoring.
b. Invigilator.
c. Scalability.
d. Accessibility.
Answer: C
Q. Q _____ refers to fraud detecting mechanism.
a. Scalability.
b. Proctoring software.
c. Artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.
Answer: B
Q. Q In an E-exam platform, ____ addresses the problems of coverage.
a. Proctoring.
b. Scalability.
c. Accessibility.
d. None of the above.
Answer: C
Q. Q _________ suggests that a good platform should be able to host many candidates at different locations in a hassle-free atmosphere with minimal bandwidth.
a. Accessibility.
b. Proctoring.
c. Scalability.
d. All of the above.
Answer: C
Q. Q Another significant feature a good e-exam platform is that it should adapt to different question forms.
a. False.
b. True.
c. A & B are correct.
d. Only A is correct.
Answer: B
INFORMATION MCQs (Part 2: Q 101 – 200)
Q 101. Another significant feature a good e-exam platform is that it should adapt to different question forms.
a. False
b. True
c. A & B are correct
d. Only A is correct
Answer: B
Q 102. Critical to E-exam outcome is availability of technical support to ensure hitch-free exams.
a. False
b. True
c. Partially correct
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 103. Two digital security strategies that could arrest the menace of impersonation are ___ and ___.
a. Fingerprint verification & image authentication
b. Fingerprint verification & face matching
c. Image authentication & face matching
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 104. Main function of Username and Password in the context of E-exam is ___.
a. To gain access to the exam platform
b. To access the university Wi-Fi
c. To access the university website
d. All of the above
Answer: A
Q 105. Innovation in science and technology have improved the synergy between science and humanity.
a. True
b. False
c. A & B are correct
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q 106. According to ______ technology has redefined the ways knowledge is produced and exchanged in academic landscape.
a. Faniran & Ajayi (2016)
b. Terzis & Economides (2011)
c. Okocha et al (2017)
d. Fu (2013)
Answer: A
Q 107. Science and humanity are both indispensable to ___.
a. Human existence
b. Academic pursuit only
c. Students in humanity
d. Students in science
Answer: A
Q 108. For a hitch-free E-exam, candidates should observe all but one of the following:
a. Follow the invigilator’s directive
b. Enter the hall noisily
c. Avoid distracting other candidates
d. Feet dragging should be avoided
Answer: B
Q 109. When a candidate enters the E-exam hall, he/she should log in immediately.
a. True
b. False
c. A & B are correct
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q 110. The following is not true of E-exam.
a. Questions jumped are irretraceable
b. It is advised that questions be answered serially
c. Questions jumped could be retraced
d. Where a candidate prefers to jump a question, he/she should not forget to go back and answer the questions jumped
Answer: A
Q 111. The E-exam shuts down ___.
a. At the expiration of the time frame
b. Few minutes after the time elapsed
c. Does not shut down at all
d. Allows candidates to write as long as they desire
Answer: A
Q 112. It is the responsibility of ___ to ensure that the total number of questions stipulated for the examination is displayed on the screen.
a. Examiner
b. Candidate
c. Examiner & candidate
d. None of the above
Answer: B
Q 113. Candidates should remember to click the ___ button before leaving the computer desk.
a. Start
b. Login
c. Logout
d. Submit
Answer: D
Q 114. E-exam is taking over the pen and paper mode of administering examinations, largely because of ___.
a. Advancement in teaching skills
b. Advancement in ICT
c. Advancement in writing skills
d. Advancement in study skills
Answer: B
Q 115. ____ has redefined the ways knowledge is produced and exchanged in academic landscapes.
a. Technology
b. Examiner
c. Candidate
d. Proctor
Answer: A
Q 116. Communication has been influenced through advancement of _____.
a. E-exam
b. Information Communication and Technology
c. Learning processes
d. Computer
Answer: B
Q 117. ____ defines digital humanities as the applications of computer-based technology in humanity.
a. Fu (2013)
b. Faniran & Ajayi (2016)
c. Berry (2019)
d. Terzis & Economides (2011)
Answer: C
Q 118. English language belongs to the people of ___.
a. New Zealand
b. America
c. Canada
d. England
Answer: D
Q 119. English is a world language because ___.
a. It is spoken all over the world
b. It is spoken as a foreign language
c. The whole world likes it
d. It is for specific purposes
Answer: A
Q 120. As a language English has the characteristics of being ________.
a. Specific
b. Contextual
c. Educational
d. Communicational
Answer: B
Q 121. English for specific purposes can also be called ______.
a. English as a second language
b. English as a foreign language
c. English for contextual purposes
d. English for special purposes
Answer: D
Q 122. Which of the following is not true of ELT?
a. It is about communication studies
b. It is about language learning
c. It is about language teaching
d. It is about foreign language teaching
Answer: A
Q 123. Which of the following is not instrumental to the origin or development of ESP?
a. The demand for English as the key to international commerce and technology
b. The need to develop English as a world language
c. Innovation in linguistic studies
d. New trends in educational psychology
Answer: B
Q 124. ESP promoted specialization in language learning.
a. Completely true
b. False
c. Partially false
d. Partially true
Answer: A
Q 125. The kind of English language designed to give learners solid foundation in basic grammar and communication.
a. ESP
b. GE
c. ESS
d. EBE
Answer: B
Q 126. _____ is designed for the development of the core skills in language.
a. ESP
b. GE
c. ESS
d. EBE
Answer: B
Q 127. ESP focuses on _____.
a. The development of core skills in language
b. The promotion of world language
c. The development of vocabulary and register skills in specific disciplines
d. The development of language acquisition mechanism
Answer: C
Q 128. The knowledge of ESP is greatly hampered without adequate knowledge of GE.
a. Completely true
b. False
c. Partially false
d. Partially true
Answer: A
Q 129. The goal of all kinds of language teaching is the ____.
a. Learning of communication
b. Learning of mother tongue
c. Learning of a second language
d. Learning of special language proficiency
Answer: A
Q 130. Which of the following is not a direct branch of English language teaching (ELT)?
a. EAP
b. EMT
c. EFL
d. ESL
Answer: B
Q 131. EOP, ESS, EAP, EBE and EST are all aspects of ____.
a. General English
b. English for specific purposes
c. Communication
d. Adult language education
Answer: B
Q 132. Which of the following is not an area of language variation?
a. Personal
b. Social
c. Geographical
d. Imagination
Answer: D
Q 133. Any individual’s use of language conveys information about all but one of the following options.
a. His social identity
b. His ethnic background
c. Personal history
d. His linguistic contextual background
Answer: D
Q 134. Identify the odd option in the statements below: language has varieties.
a. All variations in language are regarded as register
b. Register is a “complicating factor” in language studies
c. Register also refers to the totality of language form or usage
Answer: A
Q 135. A narrow definition of register sees it as all of the following ideas except one:
a. The subject matter of an issue
b. A field of human endeavor
c. Peculiar use of language by an individual
d. The totality of language form or usage
Answer: C
Q 136. Which of the following scholars defined register as the “linguistic reflection of recurrent characteristics of a users’ use of language in situation?”
a. Ilechukwu
b. Fromkin
c. Nnamani
d. Gregory & Carroll
Answer: D
Q 137. The knowledge of register involves:
a. Linguistic features
b. The usage of the user
c. The situation of usage
d. All of the above
Answer: D
Q 138. Register is a broad linguistic term that is related to many ___.
a. Class structure
b. Concepts
c. Recurrent characteristics
d. Definitions of language
Answer: B
Q 139. Register is classified in various ways by different authors.
a. Completely true
b. Partially true
c. Completely false
d. Partially false
Answer: A
Q 140. The classifications of register into field, mode and tenor or style of discourse are mainly by ____ and ____.
a. Halliday & Hasan, Gregory & Carroll
b. Halliday & Hasan, Fromkin & Yule
c. Gregory & Carroll, Fromkin & Yule
d. Wardhaugh & Carroll, Halliday & Hasan
Answer: A
Q 141. The features of the field of discourse include all apart from ___.
a. Words
b. Collocations
c. Sentence structures
d. Stress
Answer: D
Q 142. Field of discourse as a class of register refers to ____.
a. Channel of discourse
b. Content of the discourse
c. Purposes of discourse
d. Style of discourse
Answer: B
Q 143. Catering, sports commentary and teaching are instances of
a. Fields of discourse
b. Modes of discourse
c. Tenor/style of discourse
d. Language features
Answer: A
Q 144. Spontaneous sports commentary, live interviews, unprompted debates are instances of ____ medium.
a. The actual spoken
b. The written-spoken
c. Dialogue
d. Live
Answer: A
Q 145. The register classification that takes account of the language channel of the speaker/writer is called the ___.
a. Field of discourse
b. Mode of discourse
c. Style of discourse
d. Purpose of discourse
Answer: B
Q 146. Which of the following is not an instance of the written but spoken medium of register?
a. Drama texts
b. Telephone conversations
c. Television news broadcasts
d. Dialogues in novels
Answer: B
Q 147. The purpose or effect of language use is otherwise regarded as ____.
a. Field of discourse
b. Tenor of discourse
c. Mode of discourse
d. Register
Answer: B
Q 148. Mode of discourse brings into focus the ____, ____ and ____ of the communication event.
a. Purpose, interlocutors and role relationships
b. Lexical items, role relationships and purpose
c. Interlocutors, lexical items and purpose
d. Role relationships, lexical items and interlocutors
Answer: D
Q 149. Collocations or word clusters are the main pointers to the ____ of a discourse.
a. Field
b. Mode
c. Style/tenor
d. Features
Answer: A
Q 150. The subject-specific or technical words peculiar to particular profession or situations are called ____.
a. Features of language
b. Jargons
c. Idioms
d. Figurative expressions
Answer: B
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Q 151. The actual meaning of an English word is acquired in the ____.
a. Dictionary
b. Context of usage
c. Figurative usage
d. Literal usage
Answer: B
Q 152. The use of contracted forms, sentence sharing, silence filters and phonological features are the characteristics of ___.
a. Spoken mode
b. The written mode
c. Tenor of discourse
d. Language usage
Answer: A
Q 153. Sentence types, precision of styles, and economy of words characterize the ____.
a. Spoken mode
b. Written mode
c. Style of discourse
d. Language usage of all modes
Answer: B
Q 154. Speed of speech, gestures, body movements and voice cues are _____ features.
a. Redundancy features
b. Prosodic features
c. Non-verbal features
d. Language features
Answer: C
Q 155. Lexical, grammatical and phonological features are the distinguishing features of the ____ of discourse.
a. Field
b. Mode
c. Tenor
d. Language
Answer: B
Q 156. Levels of formality and informality are part of the features of ___ of discourse.
a. Field
b. Mode
c. Tenor
d. Jargons
Answer: C
Q 157. _____ is a tool for a better understanding of language usage in specific fields of human activities.
a. Textual analysis
b. Lexical analysis
c. Meaning analysis
d. Register analysis
Answer: D
Q 158. _______ has been noted to be the birthplace of new words in language.
a. Science
b. Lexical forms
c. Grammar
d. A dictionary
Answer: A
Q 159. The main distinctive feature of any register is _____.
a. Lexical items
b. Grammatical features
c. Phonological features
d. Situational features
Answer: A
Q 160. ATM, PIN, TV, CD, and VCR point to the field of science and indicate its characteristic ____ expression.
a. Simple
b. Compound
c. Multiply compound
d. Verbless
Answer: D
Q 161. “Step up” and “step down” in electrical register shows that words acquire ____ in different contexts.
a. New relevance
b. New meaning
c. New expressions
d. New dominance
Answer: B
Q 162. Space, time and focus mark all ____ registers.
a. Law
b. Journalistic
c. Types
d. Spoken
Answer: B
Q 163. Style is synonymous to register.
a. Completely true
b. Partially false
c. Partially true
d. Completely false
Answer: C
Q 164. Television, radio, newspaper, editorials, headlines, news.
a. Law
b. Journalism
c. Politics
d. Economics
Answer: B
Q 165. Default, alibi, jury, courtroom, verdict, lien, plaintiff.
a. Politics
b. Law
c. Economics
d. Commerce
Answer: B
Q 166. Google, Skype, file, collaboration, search engines, websites.
a. Politics
b. Chemistry
c. Medicine
d. Internet communication technology
Answer: D
Q 167. Patient, syringe, ORS, surgery, disease, diarrhea.
a. Medicine
b. Law
c. Geology
d. Economics
Answer: A
Q 168. White bread, pupils, drawing books, crayons, toys, rhymes (songs).
a. Nursery education
b. Tertiary education
c. Secondary education
d. Informal education
Answer: A
Q 169. Identify the odd option: The study of register enables a language learner/user to ____.
a. Have an adequate knowledge of how communication works
b. Strengthen his/her grammatical foundations
c. Engage in wide reading
d. Engage in interdisciplinary debates
Answer: B
Q 170. ___ propounded the taxonomy of reading.
a. Plato
b. Aristotle
c. Chomsky
d. Benjamin Bloom
Answer: D
Q 171. One of these is not a strategy for understanding difficult words.
a. Informing
b. Context clue
c. Use of dictionary
d. Knowledge of affixes
Answer: A
Q 172. By hierarchy, the taxonomy of reading starts from ____.
a. Creating to remembering
b. Creating to evaluating
c. Applying to creating
d. Analyzing to creating
Answer: D
Q 173. Reading is a ____ process.
a. Physical
b. Cognitive
c. Psychological
d. Sociological
Answer: B
Q 174. _____ defined reading as a cognitive process in which graphic symbols are encoded to inform the human mind.
a. Benjamin Blooms
b. Adolphus Hitler
c. Richard Steele
d. Chomsky
Answer: D
Q 175. At the level of reading, the reader recognizes ____ as belonging to language.
a. Words
b. Signs
c. Symbols
d. Paragraphs
Answer: A
Q 176. Another name for analytical reading is ___.
a. Evaluative reading
b. Critical reading
c. Synthetical reading
d. Organizational reading
Answer: B
Q 177. Which of these is not a level of reading?
a. Literal reading
b. Critical reading
c. Evaluative reading
d. Analytical reading
Answer: C
Q 178. _____ is the level of reading in which the reader reads between lines to make connotative inference.
a. Inferential reading
b. Literal reading
c. Evaluative reading
d. Synthetical reading
Answer: A
Q 179. Reading can take basically four levels except ____.
a. Presumption level
b. Critical level
c. Analytical level
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q 180. Oral reading is a type of ___ reading.
a. Vocalization
b. Evaluative
c. Intensive
d. Dyslexia
Answer: A
Q 181. An example of oral reading is ____.
a. Extensive reading
b. Valedictory reading
c. Silent reading
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 182. The two main types of reading are _____ and _____.
a. Vocalized reading and oral reading
b. Oral reading and silent reading
c. Intensive reading and extensive reading
d. Vocalized reading and intensive reading
Answer: C
Q 183. One of the main features of intensive reading is ____.
a. It involves knowledge acquisition outside one’s field of study
b. It is always classroom based
c. Much concentration is demanded
d. All of the above
Answer: C
Q 184. The main feature of extensive reading is ____.
a. Students select what they read
b. It is classroom-based
c. Text is thoroughly read
d. All of the above
Answer: A
Q 185. The reading technique in which the reader looks for specific information is ____.
a. Skimming
b. Scanning
c. Vocalization
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 186. _____ reading problem goes together with vocalization.
a. Pointing at words
b. Looking at words
c. Regression
d. Dyslexia
Answer: A
Q 187. Emotional cum psychological problem affects the reader’s ____.
a. Outlook
b. Hearing
c. Comprehension
d. None of the above
Answer: C
Q 188. Visualization is connected with _____.
a. Proper articulation
b. Inability to process printed materials
c. Improper comprehension
d. None of the above
Answer: C
Q 189. News broadcast is an example of _____ reading.
a. Oral
b. Literal
c. Group
d. Intensive
Answer: A
Q 190. Reading with purpose means ____.
a. Setting goals & deciding on what to read
b. Purposeful reading
c. Reading with concentration
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q 191. The topic sentence in a paragraph is ____.
a. The title of an essay
b. The meaning-carrying sentence
c. Every meaningful sentence
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 192. The topic sentence usually appears at the ____ of the paragraph.
a. Margin
b. Attachment part
c. Beginning
d. Footnote
Answer: C
Q 193. Note-taking as a reading technique involves ____.
a. Writing major points and avoiding digression
b. Writing major points with digression
c. Noting digression and illustration
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Q 194. The reading problem usually associated with children is ____.
a. Hypertension
b. Autism spectrum
c. Emotional/psychological problem
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 195. Blending and compounding are contrasted because ____.
a. Blending involves taking only the beginning of a word and joining it to the end of another word
b. Compounding is the joining of two clipped words
c. Blending is the joining of the first letters of two words
d. All of the above
Answer: A
Q 196. One of the following words is a blend _____.
a. Congregate
b. Spanglish
c. Plane
d. All of the above
Answer: B
Q 197. Words that have the same graphic representative whose meanings are determined by context are called ___.
a. Homonym
b. Antonym
c. Homophones
d. Synonym
Answer: A
Q 198. One of these is not an acronym.
a. NAFDAC
b. UFO
c. UNN
d. WAI
Answer: C
Q 199. An example of a phrasal verb is ___.
a. Come across
b. Telecast
c. WAID
d. Congregate
Answer: A
Q 200. The term study concerns all except ____.
a. Vocalization
b. Phobia
c. Dyslexia
d. All of the above
Answer: D
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